1 MCQs in Ophthalmology for NEET PG
A 55-year-old man of Indian origin with myopia (−6 D) presents to the eye clinic for routine examination. Gonioscopy reveals a Shaffer grade III angle with a pigmented trabecular meshwork. Intraocular pressure (IOP) is 18 mmHg in both eyes, and optic disc shows a vertical cup-to-disc ratio of 0.6 with inferior notching. Visual fields are normal. Six months later, he develops gradual painless vision loss in the left eye with IOP rising to 28 mmHg despite topical prostaglandin analogue therapy. Repeat gonioscopy shows persistent grade III angles bilaterally. Which of the following best explains the mechanism of increased IOP in the left eye?
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