53 MCQs in Ophthalmology for NEET PG
Which imaging modality is the gold standard for diagnosis and evaluation of orbital cellulitis?
A 35-year-old man presents with acute onset proptosis, chemosis, ophthalmoplegia, and fever for 2 days. Examination reveals restricted eye movements in all directions and a relative afferent pupillary defect. Which investigation is most appropriate to confirm the diagnosis of orbital cellulitis and guide antibiotic therapy?
A 35-year-old man presents with acute onset proptosis, chemosis, ophthalmoplegia, and fever. Imaging confirms orbital cellulitis with no abscess formation. What is the drug of choice for initial empirical therapy?
Which of the following is the most common causative organism of orbital cellulitis in children?
A 45-year-old woman with chronic rhinosinusitis develops orbital cellulitis secondary to ethmoid sinusitis. Regarding the microbiology, risk factors, and imaging findings in orbital cellulitis, all of the following are correct EXCEPT:
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