1 MCQs in Ophthalmology for NEET PG
A 48-year-old man with 18 years of type 1 diabetes and HbA1c 9.8% presents for annual retinal screening. Visual acuity is 6/9 OU. Fundoscopy reveals abundant dot-blot hemorrhages and microaneurysms in all four quadrants, multiple cotton-wool spots, and the structure marked **A** (venous beading and IRMA) is prominently visible in the supero-temporal and infero-temporal arcades. There is no neovascularization at the disc or elsewhere. Based on the ETDRS 4-2-1 rule, what is the most appropriate next step in management?
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