2 MCQs in Ophthalmology for NEET PG
A 28-year-old Indian male with hemoglobin SC disease presents with floaters and blurred vision. Fundoscopy reveals the structure marked **A** in the diagram—a characteristic fan-shaped neovascular frond at the superotemporal retina at the boundary between perfused and non-perfused retina. Which of the following best explains the pathophysiological mechanism underlying the formation of this structure?
A 28-year-old man with hemoglobin SC disease presents for ophthalmology screening. Dilated fundus examination reveals a fan-shaped fibrovascular proliferation at the vascular-avascular junction in the temporal periphery, marked as **A** in the diagram. Wide-field fluorescein angiography confirms non-perfusion of the peripheral retina anterior to this lesion. Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line management for the structure marked **A**?
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