1 MCQs in Ophthalmology for NEET PG
A 26-year-old Afro-Caribbean man with HbSC disease presents with floaters and a visual acuity of 6/9 in the right eye. Dilated peripheral fundoscopy reveals a fan-shaped tuft of fine, lacy neovascularization at the junction of perfused and non-perfused retina in the temporal periphery, as marked **A** in the diagram. Which of the following best describes the pathogenic mechanism underlying the formation of this lesion?
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