1 MCQs in Ophthalmology for NEET PG
A 58-year-old man with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus presents with gradual, painless visual decline over 3 weeks. Fundoscopy reveals new-onset neovascularization at the disc (NVD) with adjacent vitreous hemorrhage. The structure marked **A** in the diagram shows a tented, immobile, tent-like elevation of the retina with an irregular corrugated surface and star folds at points of traction. There is no full-thickness retinal break. Which of the following best describes the pathophysiological mechanism underlying the retinal detachment marked **A**?
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