Visual Field Defects

A 58-year-old man presents with progressive loss of vision in the superior temporal quadrant of both eyes. On examination, he has normal visual acuity and intraocular pressures of 24 mmHg bilaterally. Fundoscopy reveals early optic disc cupping. Which investigation is most appropriate to confirm the diagnosis and establish baseline parameters for monitoring disease progression?

A 68-year-old woman with diabetes and hypertension undergoes automated perimetry showing a superior arcuate scotoma in the right eye. Which of the following is NOT consistent with this finding?

A 52-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with sudden-onset loss of the upper half of the visual field in both eyes. She denies any eye pain or diplopia. Visual acuity is 6/6 in both eyes. Confrontation visual fields show loss of the superior visual fields bilaterally (above the horizontal meridian), with the inferior fields intact. Fundoscopy reveals flame-shaped hemorrhages and cotton-wool spots in the inferior retina bilaterally. MRI brain is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 38-year-old woman from Mumbai presents with sudden onset of a right homonymous hemianopia discovered incidentally on routine eye testing. She denies any headache, weakness, or sensory loss. Neurologic examination is otherwise normal. Visual acuity is 6/6 in both eyes, and fundoscopy is normal bilaterally. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 68-year-old woman with a history of giant cell arteritis presents with sudden loss of vision in the right eye. Examination reveals a relative afferent pupillary defect and a pale, atrophic optic disc with no swelling. Which finding best distinguishes this presentation of arteritic anterior ischemic optic neuropathy (A-AION) from non-arteritic AION (NA-AION)?