1 MCQs in Orthopedics for NEET PG
A 58-year-old man with a 10-year history of ankylosing spondylitis presents with acute-onset severe back pain and neurological deficit following a minor fall from standing height. Imaging reveals a fracture through the rigid, ossified spine at the thoracolumbar junction. Which of the following best explains the high risk of neurological injury in this patient despite the low-energy mechanism?
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