1 MCQs in Orthopedics for NEET PG
A 52-year-old woman with a 10-year history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with progressive deformity of her right index finger. On examination, the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint is held in flexion, and the distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint is hyperextended, as shown in the diagram. The structure marked **A** represents the PIP flexion deformity. Which of the following best explains the pathophysiological mechanism underlying this characteristic deformity?
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