1 MCQs in Orthopedics for NEET PG
A 34-year-old female homemaker presents with sudden onset pain and swelling of the ring finger of her right hand after a cricket ball injury. She reports a painless firm swelling in the finger for 2 years. Examination reveals fusiform swelling of the proximal phalanx with local tenderness and restricted MCP and PIP joint movement. Radiographs show a well-defined geographic intramedullary lucent lesion in the proximal phalanx with internal popcorn-like calcifications and a pathological fracture. The structure marked **A** in the diagram represents this lesion. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate NEXT management step after the pathological fracture has united in 4–6 weeks?
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