1 MCQs in Orthopedics for NEET PG
A 22-year-old male competitive footballer presents 5 days after a non-contact pivot injury with acute knee swelling, haemarthrosis, and instability on stairs. Examination shows a positive Lachman test (grade 2, 5–10 mm translation with soft endpoint), positive anterior drawer, and positive pivot shift. MRI confirms a complete tear of the structure marked **A** with discontinuous wavy fibres and intrasubstance oedema. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management for this young pivoting athlete?
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