1 MCQs in Orthopedics for NEET PG
A 62-year-old man with a 15-year history of ankylosing spondylitis presents to the emergency department after a fall from standing height. He reports sudden-onset severe neck pain and bilateral upper limb weakness. Imaging reveals a fracture-dislocation at C5–C6 with retropulsion of bone into the spinal canal. On examination, he has preserved perianal sensation and voluntary anal contraction. Which of the following best describes the neurological injury pattern and predicts the most likely functional outcome?
Ready to test yourself?
Test your Orthopedics knowledge with AI-powered MCQs and detailed explanations — no signup required to try.
Sign up free and practice all 1 Spinal Cord Injury Syndromes in Ankylosing Spondylitis MCQs with AI-powered explanations tailored to your performance.
Create Free Account