1 MCQs in Orthopedics for NEET PG
A 58-year-old man with a 10-year history of ankylosing spondylitis presents with acute-onset paraplegia following a minor fall from standing height. Imaging reveals a fracture-dislocation at the thoracolumbar junction with posterior ligamentous disruption. Which of the following best explains the disproportionate neurological injury in this patient compared to the mechanism of trauma?
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