49 MCQs in Orthopedics for NEET PG
According to the Gartland classification, a supracondylar fracture of the humerus with complete displacement but intact cortical contact is classified as which type?
A 7-year-old boy presents to the emergency department following a fall on an outstretched hand (FOOSH injury). Clinical examination reveals severe swelling over the anterior elbow, loss of elbow extension, and absent radial pulse. Which investigation is the most appropriate next step to confirm the diagnosis and assess vascular compromise?
During the clinical examination of a 6-year-old girl with a supracondylar fracture of the humerus, the orthopedic surgeon assesses for neurovascular complications. Which of the following is the most common nerve injury associated with supracondylar fractures?
Regarding the classification and management principles of supracondylar fractures of the humerus in children, all of the following statements are correct EXCEPT:
A 7-year-old boy presents to the emergency department following a fall on an outstretched hand (FOOSH). X-rays reveal a supracondylar fracture of the humerus. Regarding the clinical features and management of supracondylar fractures, all of the following are true EXCEPT:
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