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    SubjectsPathologyAcanthosis Nigricans
    Para-clinicalPathology

    Acanthosis Nigricans

    1 MCQs in Pathology for NEET PG

    1 Medium
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    Sample Questions

    medium

    A 42-year-old woman presents to the dermatology clinic with hyperpigmented, velvety skin over the posterior neck (marked **A** in the diagram). She has a BMI of 34 kg/m² and reports no weight loss. On examination, she also has skin tags and involvement of axillary and inguinal folds. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

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