1 MCQs in Pathology for NEET PG
A 62-year-old man presents with stage IV B-cell lymphoma with B symptoms, elevated LDH, and bone marrow involvement. Morphology is intermediate between DLBCL and Burkitt lymphoma. Flow cytometry shows CD20+, CD10+, BCL6+, BCL2+, MUM1–, with Ki-67 of 85%. FISH analysis reveals the pattern shown in the diagram, with the structure marked **A** (MYC + BCL2 rearrangement) confirmed. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial management strategy for this patient?
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