1 MCQs in Pathology for NEET PG
A 14-year-old boy presents with a 3-month history of progressive pain and swelling of the left femur. Plain radiograph shows a diaphyseal lytic lesion with an "onion-skin" periosteal reaction. Biopsy reveals small round blue cells with CD99+ membranous immunostaining. FISH analysis confirms the translocation marked **A** in the diagram. Which of the following best describes the molecular pathogenesis of this tumor?
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