1 MCQs in Pathology for NEET PG
A 58-year-old woman presents with painless, waxing-and-waning bilateral cervical and inguinal lymphadenopathy. Excisional biopsy shows nodular proliferation with small cleaved centrocytes and scattered centroblasts. Immunohistochemistry demonstrates CD20+, CD10+, BCL6+, and aberrant BCL2+ expression within follicles. Cytogenetics reveals the translocation marked **A** in the diagram. Which of the following best explains the pathogenic mechanism of this translocation?
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