1 MCQs in Pathology for NEET PG
A 52-year-old hypertensive woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset "worst headache of her life," photophobia, and neck stiffness. Non-contrast CT head shows hyperdense blood in the subarachnoid space with a "star" pattern around the circle of Willis. Angiography identifies a thin-walled saccular outpouching at the anterior communicating artery–anterior cerebral artery junction, as marked **A** in the diagram. Which of the following is the PRIMARY PATHOGENIC MECHANISM underlying the formation of the structure marked **A**?
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