1 MCQs in Pathology for NEET PG
A 42-year-old woman presents with progressive visual field defect and amenorrhea for 8 months. MRI shows a 2.5 cm sellar mass with suprasellar extension compressing the optic chiasm. The structure marked **A** in the diagram represents this lesion. Formal visual field testing confirms bitemporal hemianopsia. Serum prolactin is 85 ng/mL. Which of the following best explains the prolactin elevation in this patient?
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