1 MCQs in Pathology for NEET PG
A 62-year-old man presents with painless, waxing-and-waning cervical and axillary lymphadenopathy over 18 months. Excisional lymph node biopsy shows nodular architecture with centrocytes and centroblasts. FISH analysis reveals the fusion signal marked **A** in the diagram. Which of the following best explains the pathogenic mechanism underlying this finding?
Ready to test yourself?
Test your Pathology knowledge with AI-powered MCQs and detailed explanations — no signup required to try.
Sign up free and practice all 1 Karyotype — Follicular Lymphoma t(14;18) BCL2-IGH FISH MCQs with AI-powered explanations tailored to your performance.
Create Free Account