44 MCQs in Pathology for NEET PG
A 32-year-old man presents with mediastinal mass and B symptoms. Biopsy confirms classical Hodgkin lymphoma, stage IIA. What is the drug of choice for first-line treatment?
A 28-year-old man from Delhi presents with a 3-month history of progressive painless cervical lymphadenopathy, fever, and night sweats. Excisional lymph node biopsy shows classical Hodgkin lymphoma (cHL), nodular sclerosis subtype. CT chest and abdomen are normal. PET-CT shows uptake only in cervical nodes (Stage IA). What is the most appropriate next step in management?
All of the following are characteristic histological features of classical Hodgkin lymphoma EXCEPT:
A 32-year-old man is diagnosed with classical Hodgkin lymphoma on lymph node biopsy. Which is the most common diagnostic cell type seen on histopathology?
A 42-year-old man from Bangalore with Stage IIA classical Hodgkin lymphoma (lymphocyte-rich subtype) completes 4 cycles of ABVD chemotherapy. Post-treatment PET-CT shows complete metabolic response (CMR) in all previously involved sites with Deauville score 1. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
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