46 MCQs in Pathology for NEET PG
A 62-year-old man presents with painless lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly. Lymph node biopsy shows diffuse infiltration by small lymphocytes with CD5+, CD19+, CD23+ immunophenotype. Serum LDH is mildly elevated. What is the drug of choice for first-line treatment of this condition?
A 52-year-old man with a 3-month history of progressive abdominal distension and early satiety is found to have a large abdominal mass on imaging. Peripheral blood smear shows abnormal lymphoid cells with a 'buttock cell' appearance. Which investigation is most specific for confirming the diagnosis and determining the cell lineage?
All of the following are characteristic features of Diffuse Large B-Cell Lymphoma (DLBCL) EXCEPT:
A 52-year-old woman presents with a 3-month history of painless lymphadenopathy in the neck and axilla, along with night sweats and a 5 kg weight loss. Biopsy shows a lymphoma with CD20+ B cells, CD5+ T cells in the background, and a t(14;18) translocation. All of the following statements regarding this lymphoma are correct EXCEPT:
A 35-year-old Indian man presents with a rapidly enlarging abdominal mass and elevated LDH. Biopsy shows a highly proliferative lymphoma with a 'starry sky' pattern and t(8;14) translocation. What is the most common site of presentation for this lymphoma?
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