1 MCQs in Pathology for NEET PG
A 42-year-old woman presents with well-demarcated lesions on her anterior shins that have been slowly enlarging over 18 months. On examination, the lesions are characterized by **yellow-brown atrophic plaques (marked A)** with telangiectasias on the surface and central waxy scarring. She reports no prior diabetes diagnosis. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management AND screening?
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