41 MCQs in Pathology for NEET PG
A 52-year-old postmenopausal woman from Delhi presents with progressive abdominal distension and mild abdominal pain for 3 months. On examination, she has ascites and a palpable abdominal mass. Serum CA-125 is markedly elevated at 850 U/mL. Ultrasound shows a large complex ovarian mass with solid and cystic components, and free fluid in the pelvis. CT abdomen reveals omental caking and peritoneal nodules. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Serous ovarian tumors account for what percentage of epithelial ovarian neoplasms, and which histologic grade carries the worst prognosis when malignant?
Regarding epithelial ovarian tumors, all of the following statements are correct EXCEPT:
Which epithelial ovarian tumor is characterized by the presence of Brenner cells and is associated with the highest risk of malignant transformation?
A 52-year-old postmenopausal woman from Delhi presents with progressive abdominal distension and mild abdominal pain for 3 months. She reports early satiety and occasional nausea. On examination, there is abdominal distension with ascites. Pelvic ultrasound reveals a large complex ovarian mass (12 cm) with solid and cystic components, and free fluid in the pelvis. CA-125 is elevated at 380 U/mL. A CT abdomen shows omental caking. What is the most likely diagnosis?
+ 36 more questions available after sign-up
Ready to test yourself?
Test your Pathology knowledge with AI-powered MCQs and detailed explanations — no signup required to try.
Sign up free and practice all 41 Ovarian Tumors — Epithelial MCQs with AI-powered explanations tailored to your performance.
Create Free Account