1 MCQs in Pathology for NEET PG
A 68-year-old man with newly diagnosed HIV (CD4 count 35 cells/μL) presents with sudden vision loss and floaters. Fundoscopy reveals hemorrhagic retinal infiltrates with granular appearance. A retinal biopsy is performed, and histopathology shows enlarged cells with large basophilic intranuclear inclusions surrounded by a clear halo, as marked **A** in the diagram. Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line antiviral therapy for this patient?
Ready to test yourself?
Test your Pathology knowledge with AI-powered MCQs and detailed explanations — no signup required to try.
Sign up free and practice all 1 Owl-Eye Inclusion — Cytomegalovirus MCQs with AI-powered explanations tailored to your performance.
Create Free Account