1 MCQs in Pathology for NEET PG
A 32-year-old woman undergoes cervical cytology (Pap smear) as part of routine screening. The report shows LSIL (Low-Grade Squamous Intraepithelial Lesion) with cells marked **A** displaying mild atypia and koilocytic changes. She has no prior abnormal Pap results and is HPV-positive on reflex testing. According to current ASCCP 2019 risk-based guidelines (adopted in modified Indian cervical cancer screening protocols), what is the most appropriate next management step?
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