1 MCQs in Pathology for NEET PG
A 42-year-old man from rural Maharashtra presents with recurrent episodes of severe headache, palpitations, and profuse diaphoresis over 6 months. Blood pressure is 168/104 mmHg. A CT abdomen reveals a 3.5 cm left adrenal mass. Histopathology shows the characteristic pattern marked **A** in the diagram — nests of polygonal cells separated by fibrovascular septa with peripheral S100-positive sustentacular cells. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management before surgical intervention?
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