1 MCQs in Pathology for NEET PG
A 45-year-old man with a lifelong history of recurrent hemarthroses and bleeding after minor trauma presents for genetic counseling. His laboratory studies show prolonged aPTT with normal PT, normal bleeding time, and factor VIII activity <1%. The pedigree marked **A** in the diagram shows his maternal grandfather (generation I) with identical clinical features and laboratory findings, all of the grandfather's daughters are unaffected but documented as obligate carriers, and notably, NO male-to-male transmission is observed in the family across four generations. Based on this inheritance pattern, which of the following is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?
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