1 MCQs in Pathology for NEET PG
A 28-year-old man with a 5-year history of intravenous heroin use presents with high fever, rigors, and dyspnea. Examination reveals a holosystolic murmur at the lower left sternal border that increases with inspiration, elevated JVP with prominent CV waves, and splinter hemorrhages. Chest X-ray shows multiple bilateral cavitating nodules. Blood cultures grow methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus. The structure marked **A** in the diagram shows large, friable, red-brown vegetations partially destroying the leaflets. Which of the following best explains why septic pulmonary emboli, rather than systemic emboli, are the predominant embolic manifestation in this patient?
Ready to test yourself?
Test your Pathology knowledge with AI-powered MCQs and detailed explanations — no signup required to try.
Sign up free and practice all 1 Tricuspid Endocarditis - IV Drug Use Vegetations MCQs with AI-powered explanations tailored to your performance.
Create Free Account